The context of Hamlet's "to be or not to be" soliloquy establishes whether or not it is a ruse to manipulate Claudius. To this point in the novel, Hamlet has suffered the untimely death of his father, King Hamlet, and met his ghost. The ghost explains that Claudius murdered him while he slept in the garden. Yet, we know that Hamlet is in deep mourning for his father. In Act 1, Scene ii, Gertrude, his mother and Claudius' newly wed wife, asks Hamlet "Why seems it so particular with thee?" in reference to his black attire and mourning. Hamlet replies, "But that within which passeth show, / These but the trappings and suits of woe" (lines 78-89). Because the audience knows that Hamlet is in deep mourning, it sets a clear context for the "to be or not to be" soliloquy that follows.
Hamlet believes that he is alone at the onset of this soliloquy. He reflects on the nature of life and why would someone suffer through such outrageous fortune. In essence, why do people choose to live, rather than kill themselves, despite all the pain and suffering people suffer in life. He concludes it is because of fear of the after-life. He says, "the dread of something after death" is why people do not stab themselves with a "bare bodkin." Such reflection suggests that he is legitimately struggling with misery over his father's death. He is alone and contemplating the point and purpose of life. Yet, at the end of the soliloquy, he is interrupted by Ophelia entering the room. He says, "Soft you now! / The fair Ophelia! Nymph, in thy orisons, / Be all my sins remembered." He was clearly not expecting her to be there.
It should be noted that it isn't until he sees Ophelia and begins to speak with her, that he suspects a trap. He actually begins his conversation with her politely, until she attempts to return some love letters or "remembrances". It is at this point that Hamlet's demur changes and he even asks her if she is "honest." I would argue that it is at this point that Hamlet is aware of the trap and returns to his initial plan to act mad, as mentioned to Horatio after meeting the ghost. Previous to this, he thinks he is alone, and is contemplating life, in the context of his father's death.
There have definitely been some critics of how genuine Hamlet's "madness" is in this play. Obviously, there are things we just can never prove in literature, and the debate over how stable Hamlet is happens to be one of those things. I think it's important to consider the broader arc of the story- it's a play within a play. Hamlet shows multiple times how cunning and critical he is as a person. He thinks very deeply before he acts, so it's definitely possible that his soliloquy is just a ruse, another layer of the dramatics he's put on.
Let's look at what Claudius says after Hamlet and Ophelia conversation, which followed the soliloquy.
"Love? His affections do not that way tend.
Nor what he spake, though it lacked form a little,
Was not like madness. There's something in his soul
Over which his melancholy sits on brood,
And I do doubt the hatch and the disclose
Will be some danger--"
Claudius has heard Hamlet's rantings and ravings, not only about suicide but the natural order of society, and the wickedness of women, and deemed them to have some sense to them. There seems to be the feeling that whatever is wrong with Hamlet, be it genuine madness or not, is causing something deeply intellectual and different to form in Hamlet's psyche, something that could end in danger.
It's hard to say whether or not Hamlet was genuinely suicidal. I tend to believe he was deeply troubled and intensely dramatic, but I do think on some level he was unstable. However, there is so much evidence for Hamlet's cunning nature, recognized by many but especially Claudius here. I do think the argument could be made to say Hamlet's suicidal soliloquy was devised, quite deliberately, to shroud his more hidden intentions to expose his uncle as his father's killer. But, if it was meant to completely convince Claudius of his madness, it doesn't quite succeed. That's the overall problem with your question of the possibility of misinformation- if it had worked, I think it would be much easier to prove. However, Claudius does pick up on some undercurrent of sense in the madness. Because of this, the reader can't make any concrete decision. It ends up in a gray area, like so much else that occurs in this play. At the very least, if this soliloquy was intended to spread misinformation about Hamlet's mental state, it at the very least plays into the common idea that something has gone wrong with Hamlet, even if Claudius doesn't quite believe that he's completely lost his mind.
Hamlet’s most famous soliloquy certainly contains lines that indicate his desire for death. While it is possible that Hamlet is just performing in this scene, I do not believe it is likely.
Hamlet truly thinks he is alone. When Hamlet is alone, he lets his guard down and becomes a vulnerable man who does not know whether he should take another man’s life or not. Hamlet agonizes over what to do because he believes murder is morally wrong. Likewise, Hamlet believes suicide is also a sin.
Another reason why I interpret Hamlet’s words as genuine is because this is not the first time in the play where Hamlet discusses suicidal thoughts. In act 1, scene 2, when Hamlet is alone on stage, he expresses a desire for death, “or that the Everlasting had not fixed / His canon 'gainst self-slaughter!” (131-32) This expression shows that Hamlet has thought of suicide, even at the beginning of the play.
In light of these facts, I do not believe Hamlet is feigning madness in this soliloquy but rather expressing genuine emotions and thoughts.
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